General patient care is 28 of the 150 scored items on the NHA CCMA. Answer 10 exam style questions on minor surgery and wound care and see exactly which concepts would cost you points on test day.
Start the 10 questions →Compared with sutures on the face, sutures over joints such as the knee are generally left in place:
These questions cover sutures, preparation, skin prep, drainage and infection signs. Each one shows the correct answer and why every other option is wrong, so a miss tells you exactly what to review before the CCMA.
Prefer to read first? Every question from the practice set above, with the correct answer and why each wrong option is wrong.
Answer: C. Removal timing varies by location and tension: facial sutures are typically removed after only a few days because the face has a rich blood supply, while sutures over joints and high-tension areas remain longer. The provider specifies the timing.
Why not A: Removal timing depends on body location and wound tension.
Why not B: Nonabsorbable skin sutures are removed; absorbable sutures dissolve on their own.
Why not D: Joints are under constant movement and tension, so they need more time.
Exam tactic: Face out early, joints and high-tension areas out late. The provider sets the date.
Answer: C. The provider performing the procedure explains the risks, benefits, and alternatives. The medical assistant can confirm that the signed consent form is present, prepare the room, sterile field, and supplies, and position and support the patient.
Why not A: Anesthetic choice and dose are ordered by the provider.
Why not B: The informed consent discussion is the provider's responsibility.
Why not D: Medical necessity is a provider judgment.
Exam tactic: Provider explains and decides. MA confirms the form, preps, and assists.
Answer: D. With the circular method, the prep starts at the planned site and moves outward so organisms are moved away from the incision. Once an area is cleaned, the applicator does not return to it, and the antiseptic is allowed to dry. Chlorhexidine-alcohol applicators use a back-and-forth scrub per the manufacturer; always follow the product's directions.
Why not A: A dry wipe does not disinfect, and the antiseptic must dry to work.
Why not B: Working inward drags organisms toward the incision.
Why not C: Skin antisepsis is done before the procedure to prevent infection.
Exam tactic: Clean to dirty, center out, never back.
Answer: C. Serous drainage is clear, watery plasma. Sanguineous is bloody, serosanguineous is pink and watery (a mix), and purulent is thick and cloudy, often yellow or green, suggesting infection.
Why not A: Serosanguineous drainage is pink-tinged, a mix of serous fluid and blood.
Why not B: Sanguineous drainage is bright red and bloody.
Why not D: Purulent drainage is thick and cloudy, often indicating infection.
Exam tactic: Serous clear, sanguineous red, serosanguineous pink, purulent pus.
Answer: C. Signs of wound infection include spreading redness, warmth, increasing swelling and pain, purulent or foul drainage, and sometimes fever. These are reported to the provider promptly.
Why not A: A pink line is typical of a healing or recently healed incision.
Why not B: A small amount of clear drainage early on is expected.
Why not D: Mild itching is common during normal healing.
Exam tactic: Red, hot, swollen, painful, pus = report it.
Answer: A. The soiled dressing is removed with clean gloves and discarded appropriately. Gloves are then removed, hand hygiene performed, and sterile gloves or a no-touch technique used for the new dressing. The part that contacts the wound is never touched.
Why not B: The wound-contact surface must remain sterile.
Why not C: Gloves used on the soiled dressing are contaminated.
Why not D: Layering over a soiled dressing traps drainage and bacteria.
Exam tactic: Dirty off, gloves off, hands clean, sterile on.
Answer: B. Coolness, pallor or blue color, numbness, tingling, or increased pain beyond the bandage indicate impaired circulation. The bandage is loosened immediately and the provider informed. Bandages are applied distal to proximal with even pressure, leaving the toes or fingers visible for checks.
Why not A: Full coverage of the dressing is the goal.
Why not C: Snug but comfortable is appropriate.
Why not D: Warm, pink toes with quick capillary refill indicate good circulation.
Exam tactic: Check CMS below every bandage: circulation, motion, sensation.
Answer: C. Primary intention is healing of a clean wound with edges brought together (sutures, staples, adhesive), typically with minimal scarring. Secondary intention is healing from the base upward when edges are left open. Tertiary (delayed primary) closure occurs when a wound is left open initially and closed later.
Why not A: Tertiary intention is delayed closure of a wound left open at first.
Why not B: Filling in from the base with granulation tissue describes secondary intention.
Why not D: Secondary intention refers to open wounds filling in from the base.
Exam tactic: Edges together = primary. Left open = secondary. Closed later = tertiary.
Answer: B. Hemostats are clamping instruments with ratchets used to compress vessels and control bleeding, and to grasp tissue. Retractors hold edges apart, suture scissors cut sutures, and probes measure depth.
Why not A: Retractors hold wound edges apart.
Why not C: Suture scissors cut sutures.
Why not D: Probes measure depth and direction.
Exam tactic: Hemo = blood, stat = stop.
Answer: C. Cryosurgery uses extreme cold, such as liquid nitrogen, to destroy abnormal tissue. Patients are told to expect redness, swelling, and a blister that forms and heals over days to weeks.
Why not A: Electrocautery uses heat from an electrical current.
Why not B: Laser ablation uses concentrated light energy.
Why not D: Incision and drainage opens and drains an abscess.
Exam tactic: Cryo = cold.
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