Free CCMA practice · Updated October 2026

CCMA pathophysiology and common diseases practice questions, with every answer explained

Anatomy and physiology is 8 of the 150 scored items on the NHA CCMA. Answer 10 exam style questions on pathophysiology and common diseases and see exactly which concepts would cost you points on test day.

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Where the CCMA points are150 scored items
General patient care
28
Foundational knowledge
15
Infection control and safety
15
Patient intake and vitals
14
Phlebotomy
12
Care coordination and education
12
Administrative assisting
12
Anatomy and physiology
8
Source: NHA CCMA test plan (2022)You are here ↑
Score 0/0
Q1Endocrine

How does type 1 diabetes differ from type 2 diabetes?

What these pathophysiology and common diseases questions test

These questions cover endocrine, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive and urinary. Each one shows the correct answer and why every other option is wrong, so a miss tells you exactly what to review before the CCMA.

EndocrineCardiovascularRespiratoryDigestiveUrinaryMusculoskeletalNeurologicalImmuneBloodInfectious

All 10 questions with answers explained

Prefer to read first? Every question from the practice set above, with the correct answer and why each wrong option is wrong.

Q1How does type 1 diabetes differ from type 2 diabetes?
  1. Type 1 affects only older adults; type 2 affects only children
  2. Type 1 is always cured by diet alone; type 2 always needs insulin
  3. In type 1 the pancreas makes little or no insulin; in type 2 the body resists insulin
  4. Type 1 raises blood pressure; type 2 lowers blood pressure

Answer: C. Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune destruction of insulin-producing beta cells, so insulin therapy is required. Type 2 involves insulin resistance and relative insulin deficiency and is managed with lifestyle changes, oral medications, and sometimes insulin.

Why not A: Either type can occur at any age.

Why not B: Type 1 always requires insulin; type 2 is not always treated with insulin.

Why not D: Blood pressure is not what distinguishes the types.

Exam tactic: Type 1: no insulin made. Type 2: insulin doesn't work well.

Q2What is the underlying cause of most heart attacks (myocardial infarctions)?
  1. Too much potassium in the patient's diet
  2. A temporary drop in heart rate during sleep
  3. A bacterial infection of the heart valves
  4. A blocked coronary artery starving heart muscle

Answer: D. Most heart attacks occur when a plaque in a coronary artery ruptures and a clot blocks blood flow, causing heart muscle to be damaged from lack of oxygen.

Why not A: Dietary potassium does not cause most heart attacks.

Why not B: Normal slowing during sleep does not cause infarction.

Why not C: Valve infection is endocarditis.

Exam tactic: MI = blocked coronary artery = heart muscle starves.

Q3Which condition is most strongly associated with long-term cigarette smoking?
  1. Cystic fibrosis in adulthood
  2. Middle ear infection in adults
  3. COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease)
  4. Seasonal allergic rhinitis (hay fever)

Answer: C. Smoking is the leading cause of COPD (chronic bronchitis and emphysema), which causes persistent airflow limitation, cough, and shortness of breath. Smoking also greatly increases lung cancer risk.

Why not A: Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disease.

Why not B: Ear infections are not primarily caused by smoking.

Why not D: Seasonal allergies are triggered by allergens, not smoking.

Exam tactic: Smoking → COPD and lung cancer.

Q4A patient has frequent heartburn caused by stomach acid flowing back into the esophagus. What is this condition called?
  1. Viral hepatitis
  2. GERD (reflux disease)
  3. Cholecystitis
  4. Diverticulitis

Answer: B. GERD occurs when the lower esophageal sphincter allows stomach contents to reflux into the esophagus, causing heartburn and irritation.

Why not A: Hepatitis is inflammation of the liver.

Why not C: Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gallbladder.

Why not D: Diverticulitis is inflammation of pouches in the colon.

Exam tactic: Reflux into the esophagus = GERD.

Q5A patient with chronic kidney disease is likely to have which lab abnormality?
  1. Elevated HDL cholesterol
  2. Elevated creatinine
  3. Decreased creatinine
  4. Low blood urea nitrogen with normal kidneys

Answer: B. The kidneys clear creatinine from the blood, so when kidney function declines, serum creatinine rises and estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) falls.

Why not A: HDL is not a kidney function marker.

Why not C: Creatinine rises in kidney disease; a low creatinine is usually seen with low muscle mass, not kidney failure.

Why not D: Low BUN does not describe kidney disease.

Exam tactic: Kidneys failing → creatinine up, eGFR down.

Q6Which type of arthritis results from wear and tear of joint cartilage and commonly affects weight-bearing joints?
  1. Rheumatoid arthritis
  2. Osteoarthritis
  3. Lupus
  4. Gout

Answer: B. Osteoarthritis is degenerative joint disease: cartilage breaks down over time, especially in knees, hips, and hands. Rheumatoid arthritis is autoimmune, and gout is caused by uric acid crystals.

Why not A: Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune inflammatory disease.

Why not C: Lupus is a systemic autoimmune disease.

Why not D: Gout is caused by uric acid crystal deposits.

Exam tactic: OA = wear and tear. RA = autoimmune.

Q7A patient's provider documents a transient ischemic attack (TIA). What does this mean?
  1. A permanent brain injury from a ruptured vessel
  2. A seizure triggered by a very high fever
  3. Temporary stroke-like symptoms that fully resolve
  4. Slowly worsening memory loss from aging

Answer: C. A TIA causes stroke-like symptoms that resolve, usually within minutes to hours, without lasting damage. It is a warning sign of increased stroke risk and needs prompt evaluation.

Why not A: A ruptured vessel causes a hemorrhagic stroke.

Why not B: A seizure with fever is a febrile seizure.

Why not D: Gradual memory loss is not a TIA.

Exam tactic: TIA = warning stroke. Symptoms resolve, risk stays.

Q8What happens in an autoimmune disease?
  1. A virus permanently replaces the immune system
  2. The immune system cannot produce any white blood cells
  3. The body stops producing antibodies to vaccines only
  4. The immune system attacks the body's own tissues

Answer: D. In autoimmune diseases, such as type 1 diabetes, rheumatoid arthritis, and lupus, the immune system mistakenly targets the body's own cells and tissues.

Why not A: Viruses do not replace the immune system.

Why not B: Absent white blood cell production describes a different disorder.

Why not C: This describes a specific vaccine response problem, not autoimmunity.

Exam tactic: Auto = self. Immune system vs self.

Q9A patient's lab results show a low hemoglobin and hematocrit, and the patient reports fatigue and pale skin. Which condition do these findings suggest for the provider to evaluate?
  1. Hyperlipidemia
  2. Anemia
  3. Hyperglycemia
  4. Polycythemia

Answer: B. Low hemoglobin and hematocrit with fatigue and pallor are consistent with anemia, a reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. The provider determines the cause, such as iron deficiency or blood loss.

Why not A: Hyperlipidemia is high blood fats.

Why not C: Hyperglycemia is high blood glucose.

Why not D: Polycythemia is an excess of red cells.

Exam tactic: Low Hgb/Hct + tired + pale = anemia picture.

Q10Which statement correctly contrasts bacteria and viruses?
  1. Antibiotics treat many bacterial infections but not viral infections
  2. Viruses are larger than bacteria and are killed by antibiotics
  3. Viruses are always harmless to humans
  4. Bacteria can only reproduce inside a host cell

Answer: A. Bacteria are single-celled organisms that many antibiotics can kill or inhibit. Viruses are much smaller, reproduce only inside host cells, and are not affected by antibiotics, which is why antibiotics are not used for the common cold.

Why not B: Viruses are smaller than bacteria and are not killed by antibiotics.

Why not C: Many viruses cause serious illness.

Why not D: Most bacteria can reproduce on their own; viruses always require a host cell to reproduce.

Exam tactic: Antibiotics: bacteria yes, viruses no.

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More about the CCMA

PassPulse is an independent exam preparation tool. We are not affiliated with, endorsed by, or sponsored by the National Healthcareer Association (NHA), the American Association of Medical Assistants (AAMA), American Medical Technologists (AMT) or the National Center for Competency Testing (NCCT). Exam, credential and product names mentioned on this page are trademarks of their respective owners and are used only to identify the exams described.

These practice questions are written by PassPulse to reflect the published exam content outline. They are not actual exam questions. Questions, answers and explanations may contain errors or be out of date, and they are for exam study only, not for clinical or professional practice: always check facts against the certifying body's official materials, current standards and your employer's policies. Scores and projections on this page are estimates based on a small number of questions and do not predict your result on the real exam. Area weights come from the official outline as of the date shown; always confirm current exam details with the certifying body.
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